notes smash

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Floris van Doorn 2017-03-22 20:35:50 -06:00
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commit 5d6598c0ae

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@ -16,6 +16,8 @@
\newcommand{\auxr}{\mathsf{auxr}} \newcommand{\auxr}{\mathsf{auxr}}
\newcommand{\gluel}{\mathsf{gluel}} \newcommand{\gluel}{\mathsf{gluel}}
\newcommand{\gluer}{\mathsf{gluer}} \newcommand{\gluer}{\mathsf{gluer}}
\newcommand{\sy}{^{-1}}
\newcommand{\const}{\ensuremath{\mathbf{0}}\xspace}
\begin{document} \begin{document}
@ -47,7 +49,11 @@
started with. In diagrams, we will denote pointed homotopies by equalities, but we always mean started with. In diagrams, we will denote pointed homotopies by equalities, but we always mean
pointed homotopies. pointed homotopies.
\item The type $A\to B$ of pointed maps from $A$ to $B$ is itself pointed, with as basepoint the \item The type $A\to B$ of pointed maps from $A$ to $B$ is itself pointed, with as basepoint the
constant map $0\equiv0_{A,B}:A\to B$ which has as underlying function $\lam{a:A}b_0$. We have $0\o g \sim 0$ and $f \o 0 \sim 0$. constant map $0\equiv0_{A,B}:A\to B$ which has as underlying function $\lam{a:A}b_0$. We have
$0\o g \sim 0$ and $f \o 0 \sim 0$.
\item A pointed equivalence is a pointed map $f : A \to B$ whose underlying map is an
equivalence. In this case, we can find a pointed map $f\sy:B\to A$ with pointed homotopies
$f\o f\sy\sim0$ and $f\sy\o f\sim0$.
\end{rmk} \end{rmk}
\begin{lem} \begin{lem}
@ -67,12 +73,31 @@
\section{Smash Product} \section{Smash Product}
\begin{defn}
The smash of $A$ and $B$ is the HIT generated by the point constructor $(a,b)$ for $a:A$ and $b:B$
and two auxilliary points $\auxl,\auxr:A\smash B$ and path constructors $\gluel_a:(a,b_0)=\auxl$
and $\gluer_b:(a_0,b)=\auxr$ (for $a:A$ and $b:B$). $A\smash B$ is pointed with point $(a_0,b_0)$.
\end{defn}
\begin{rmk}
\item This definition of $A\smash B$ is basically the pushout of
$\bool\leftarrow A+B\to A \times B$. A more traditional definition of $A\smash B$ is the pushout
$\unit\leftarrow A\vee B\to A \times B$. Here $\vee$ denotes the wedge product, which can be
equivalently described as either the pushout $A\leftarrow \unit\to B$ or
$\unit\leftarrow \bool\to A + B$. These two definitions of $A\smash B$ are equivalent, because in
the following diagram the top-left square and the top rectangle are pushout squares, hence the
top-right square is a pushout square by applying the pushout lemma. Another application of the
pushout lemma now states that the two definitions of $A\smash B$ are equivalent.
\begin{center}
\begin{tikzcd}
\bool \arrow[r]\arrow[d] & A+B \arrow[r]\arrow[d] & \bool \arrow[d] \\
\unit \arrow[r] & A\vee B \arrow[r]\arrow[d] & \unit \arrow[d] \\
& A\times B \arrow[r] & A\smash B
\end{tikzcd}
\end{center}
\end{rmk}
\begin{lem}\mbox{}\label{lem:smash-general} \begin{lem}\mbox{}\label{lem:smash-general}
\begin{itemize} \begin{itemize}
\item The smash of $A$ and $B$ is the HIT generated by point constructor
$({-},{-}):A\to B \to A\smash B$ and two auxilliary points $\auxl,\auxr:A\smash B$ and path
constructors $\gluel:\prd{a:A}(a,b_0)=\auxl$ and $\gluer:\prd{b:B}(a_0,b)=\auxr$ (the
constructors are given as unpointed maps). $A\smash B$ is pointed with point $(a_0,b_0)$.
\item The smash is functorial: if $f:A\pmap A'$ and $g:B\pmap B'$ then \item The smash is functorial: if $f:A\pmap A'$ and $g:B\pmap B'$ then
$f\smash g:A\smash B\pmap A'\smash B'$. We write $A\smash g$ or $f\smash B$ if one of the $f\smash g:A\smash B\pmap A'\smash B'$. We write $A\smash g$ or $f\smash B$ if one of the
functions is the identity function. functions is the identity function.
@ -101,47 +126,95 @@ f'\smash 0\arrow[dl,equals] \\
\begin{lem}\label{lem:smash-coh} \begin{lem}\label{lem:smash-coh}
Suppose that we have maps $A_1\lpmap{f_1}A_2\lpmap{f_2}A_3$ and $B_1\lpmap{g_1}B_2\lpmap{g_2}B_3$ Suppose that we have maps $A_1\lpmap{f_1}A_2\lpmap{f_2}A_3$ and $B_1\lpmap{g_1}B_2\lpmap{g_2}B_3$
and suppose that either $g_1$ or $g_2$ is constant. Then there are two homotopies and suppose that either $f_1$ or $f_2$ is constant. Then there are two homotopies
$(f_2 \o f_1)\smash (g_2 \o g_1)\sim 0$, one which uses interchange and one which doesn't. These two $(f_2 \o f_1)\smash (g_2 \o g_1)\sim 0$, one which uses interchange and one which doesn't. These two
homotopies are equal. Specifically, the following two diagrams commute: %% TODO: reformulate homotopies are equal. Specifically, the following two diagrams commute:
\begin{center} \begin{center}
\begin{tikzcd} \begin{tikzcd}
(f_2 \o f_1)\smash (g_2 \o 0) \arrow[r, equals]\arrow[dd,equals] & (f_2 \o 0)\smash (g_2 \o g_1) \arrow[r, equals]\arrow[dd,equals] &
(f_2 \smash g_2)\o (f_1 \smash 0)\arrow[d,equals] \\ (f_2 \smash g_2)\o (0 \smash g_1)\arrow[d,equals] \\
& (f_2 \smash g_2)\o 0\arrow[d,equals] \\ & (f_2 \smash g_2)\o 0\arrow[d,equals] \\
(f_2 \o f_1)\smash 0 \arrow[r,equals] & 0\smash (g_2 \o g_1) \arrow[r,equals] &
0 0
\end{tikzcd} \end{tikzcd}
\qquad \qquad
\begin{tikzcd} \begin{tikzcd}
(f_2 \o f_1)\smash (0 \o g_1) \arrow[r, equals]\arrow[dd,equals] & (0 \o f_1)\smash (g_2 \o g_1) \arrow[r, equals]\arrow[dd,equals] &
(f_2 \smash 0)\o (f_1 \smash g_1)\arrow[d,equals] \\ (0 \smash g_2)\o (f_1 \smash g_1)\arrow[d,equals] \\
& 0\o (f_1 \smash g_1)\arrow[d,equals] \\ & 0\o (f_1 \smash g_1)\arrow[d,equals] \\
(f_2 \o f_1)\smash 0 \arrow[r,equals] & 0\smash (g_2 \o g_1) \arrow[r,equals] &
0 0
\end{tikzcd} \end{tikzcd}
\end{center} \end{center}
\end{lem} \end{lem}
\begin{proof} \begin{proof}
We will only do the case where $g_1\jdeq 0$, i.e. fill the diagram on the left. The other case is We will only do the case where $f_1\jdeq 0$, i.e. fill the diagram on the left. The other case is
similar (but slightly easier). First apply induction on the paths that $f_2$, $f_1$ and $g_2$ similar (and slightly easier). First apply induction on the paths that $f_2$, $g_1$ and $g_2$
respect the basepoint. In this case $g_2\o0$ is definitionally equal to $0$, and the canonical respect the basepoint. In this case $f_2\o0$ is definitionally equal to $0$, and the canonical
proof that $g_2\o 0~0$ is (definitionally) equal to reflexivity. This means that the homotopy proof that $f_2\o 0\sim0$ is (definitionally) equal to reflexivity. This means that the homotopy
$(f_2 \o f_1)\smash (g_2 \o 0)~(f_2 \o f_1)\smash 0$ is also equal to reflexivity. $(f_2 \o 0)\smash (g_2 \o g_1)\sim0\smash (g_2 \o g_1)$ is also equal to reflexivity, and also the
path that $f_2 \smash g_2$ respects the basepoint is reflexivity, hence the homotopy
For the underlying homotopy, take $x : A_1\smash B_1$. We apply induction on $x$. $(f_2 \smash g_2)\o 0\sim0$ is also reflexivity. This means we need to fill the following square,
Suppose $x\equiv(a,b)$ for $a:A_1$ and $b:B_1$. Then we have to fill the square (denote the basepoints of $A_i$ and $B_i$ by $a_i$ and $b_i$) where $q$ is the proof that $0\smash f\sim 0$.
\begin{center}
\begin{tikzcd}
(f_2 \o 0)\smash (g_2 \o g_1) \arrow[r, equals,"i"]\arrow[d,equals,"1"] &
(f_2 \smash g_2)\o (0 \smash g_1)\arrow[d,equals,"(f_2\smash g_2)\o q"] \\
0\smash (g_2 \o g_1) \arrow[r,equals,"q"] &
0
\end{tikzcd}
\end{center}
For the underlying homotopy, take $x : A_1\smash B_1$ and apply induction on $x$. Suppose
$x\equiv(a,b)$ for $a:A_1$ and $b:B_1$. Then we have to fill the square (denote the basepoints of
$A_i$ and $B_i$ by $a_i$ and $b_i$ and we suppress the arguments of $\gluer$). Now
$\mapfunc{h\smash k}(\gluer_z)=\gluer_{k(z)}$, so by general groupoid laws we see that the path on
the bottom is equal to the path on the right, which means we can fill the square.
\begin{center} \begin{center}
\begin{tikzcd} \begin{tikzcd}
(f_2(f_1(a)),g_2(b_2))\arrow[r, equals,"1"]\arrow[dd,equals,"1"] & (f_2(a_2),g_2(g_1(b)))\arrow[r, equals,"1"]
(f_2(f_1(a)),g_2(b_2))\arrow[d,equals] \\ \arrow[d,equals,"1"] &
& (f_2(a_2),g_2(b_2))\o (f_1 \smash g_1)\arrow[d,equals] \\ % \arrow[d,equals,"\gluer_{g_2(g_1(b))}\tr\gluer_{g_2(g_1(b_1))}\sy"] &
(f_2(f_1(a)),y_0) \arrow[r,equals,"1"] & (f_2(a_2),g_2(g_1(b)))\arrow[d,equals,"\mapfunc{f_2\smash g_2}(\gluer\tr\gluer\sy)"] \\
(x_0,y_0) (a_3,g_2(g_1(b))) \arrow[r,equals,"\gluer\tr\gluer\sy"] &
(a_3,b_3)
\end{tikzcd} \end{tikzcd}
\end{center} \end{center}
If $x$ is either $\auxl$ or $\auxr$ it is similar but easier. For completeness, we will write down the square we have to fill in the case that $x$ is $\auxr$.
\begin{center}
\begin{tikzcd}
\auxr \arrow[r, equals,"1"]
\arrow[d,equals,"1"] &
\auxr \arrow[d,equals,"\mapfunc{f_2\smash g_2}(\gluer_{b_2}\sy)"] \\
\auxr \arrow[r,equals,"\gluer_{g_2(b_2)}\sy"] &
(a_3,b_3)
\end{tikzcd}
\end{center}
If $x$ varies over $\gluer_b$, we need to fill the cube below. The front and the back are the
squares we just filled, the left square is a degenerate square, and the other three squares are
the squares in the definition of $q$ and $i$ to show that they respect $\gluer_b$ (and on the
right we apply $f_2\smash g_2$ to that square).
\begin{center}
\begin{tikzcd}
& \auxr \arrow[rr, equals,"1"] \arrow[dd,equals,near start,"1"] & &
\auxr \arrow[dd,equals,"\mapfunc{f_2\smash g_2}(\gluer_{b_2}\sy)"] \\
(f_2(a_2),g_2(g_1(b)))\arrow[rr, equals, near start, crossing over, "1"]
\arrow[dd,equals,"1"] \arrow[ur,equals] & &
(f_2(a_2),g_2(g_1(b))) \arrow[ur,equals] & \\
& \auxr \arrow[rr,equals,near start, "\gluer_{g_2(b_2)}\sy"] & & (a_3,b_3) \\
(a_3,g_2(g_1(b))) \arrow[rr,equals,"\gluer\tr\gluer\sy"] \arrow[ur,equals] & &
(a_3,b_3) \arrow[from=uu, equals, crossing over, very near start, "\mapfunc{f_2\smash g_2}(\gluer\tr\gluer\sy)"] \arrow[ur,equals] &
\end{tikzcd}
\end{center}
After canceling applications of
$\mapfunc{h\smash k}(\gluer_z)=\gluer_{k(z)}$ on various sides of the squares (TODO).
If $x$ varies over $\gluel_a$ the proof is very similar. Only in the end we need to fill the
following cube instead (TODO).
\end{proof} \end{proof}
\begin{thm}\label{thm:smash-functor-right} \begin{thm}\label{thm:smash-functor-right}
@ -224,26 +297,76 @@ are filled by (corollaries of) \autoref{lem:smash-general}.
\section{Adjunction} \section{Adjunction}
\begin{defn} \begin{lem}
There is a unit $\eta:A\pmap B\pmap A\smash B$ and counit $\epsilon : (B\pmap C)\smash B \pmap C$ There is a unit $\eta_{A,B}\equiv\eta:A\pmap B\pmap A\smash B$ and counit
\end{defn} $\epsilon_{B,C}\equiv\epsilon : (B\pmap C)\smash B \pmap C$ which are natural in both arguments
and satisfy the unit-counit laws:
$$(A\to\epsilon_{A,B})\o \eta_{A\to B,A}\sim \idfunc[A\to B]\qquad
\epsilon_{B,B\smash C}\o \eta_{A,B}\smash B\sim\idfunc[A\smash B].$$
\end{lem}
\begin{proof}
We define $\eta ab=(a,b)$. Then $\eta a$ respects the basepoint because
$(a,b_0)=(a_0,b_0)$. Also, $\eta$ itself respects the basepoint. To show this, we need to show
that $\eta a_0\sim0$. The underlying maps are homotopic, since $(a_0,b)=(a_0,b_0)$. To show that
this homotopy is pointed, we need to show that the two given proofs of $(a_0,b_0)=(a_0,b_0)$ are
equal, but they are both equal to reflexivity:
$$\gluel_{a_0}\tr\gluel_{a_0}\sy=1=\gluer_{b_0}\tr\gluer_{b_0}\sy.$$
This defines the unit. To define the counit, given $x:(B\pmap C)\smash B$. We construct
$\epsilon x:C$ by induction on $x$. If $x\jdeq(f,b)$ we set $\epsilon(f,b)\defeq f(b)$. If $x$
is either $\auxl$ or $\auxr$ then we set $\epsilon x\defeq c_0:C$. If $x$ varies over $\gluel_f$
then we need to show that $f(b_0)=c_0$, which is true by $f_0$. If $x$ varies over $\gluer_b$ we
need to show that $0(b)=c_0$ which is true by reflexivity. $\epsilon$ is trivially a pointed map,
which defines the counit.
Now we need to show that the unit and counit are natural. (TODO).
Finally we need to show that unit-counit laws. For the underlying homotopy of the first one, let
$f:A\to B$. We need to show that $p:\epsilon\o\eta f\sim f$. For the underlying homotopy of $p$,
let $a:A$, and we need to show that $\epsilon(f,a)=f(a)$, which is true by reflexivity. To show
that $p$ is a pointed homotopy, we need to show that
$p(a_0)\tr f_0=\mapfunc{\epsilon}(\eta f)_0\tr \epsilon_0$, which reduces to
$f_0=\mapfunc{\epsilon}(\gluel_f\tr\gluel_0\sy)$, but we can reduce the right hand side: (note:
$0_0$ denotes the proof that $0(a_0)=b_0$, which is reflexivity)
$$\mapfunc{\epsilon}(\gluel_f\tr\gluel_0\sy)=\mapfunc{\epsilon}(\gluel_f)\tr(\mapfunc{\epsilon}(\gluel_0))\sy=f_0\tr 0_0\sy=f_0.$$
Now we need to show that $p$ itself respects the basepoint of $A\to B$, i.e. that the composite
$\epsilon\o\eta0\sim\epsilon\o0\sim0$ is equal to $p$ for $f\equiv 0_{A,B}$. The underlying
homotopies are the same for $a : A$; on the one side we have
$\mapfunc{\epsilon}(\gluer_{a}\tr\gluer_{a_0}\sy)$ and on the other side we have reflexivity
(note: this typechecks, since $0_{A,B}a\equiv0_{A,B}a_0$). These paths are equal, since
$$\mapfunc{\epsilon}(\gluer_{a}\tr\gluer_{a_0}\sy)=\mapfunc{\epsilon}(\gluer_{a})\tr(\mapfunc\epsilon(\gluer_{a_0}))\sy=1\cdot1\sy\equiv1.$$
Both pointed homotopies are pointed in the same way, which requires some path-algebra, and we skip
the proof here.
For the underlying homotopy of the second one, we need to show for $x:A\smash B$ that
$\epsilon(\eta\smash B(x))=x$, which we prove by induction to $x$. (TODO).
\end{proof}
\begin{defn} \begin{defn}
The function $e\jdeq e_{A,B,C}:(A\pmap B\pmap C)\pmap(A\smash B\pmap C)$ is defined as the composite The function $e\jdeq e_{A,B,C}:(A\pmap B\pmap C)\pmap(A\smash B\pmap C)$ is defined as the composite
$$(A\pmap B\pmap C)\lpmap{({-})\smash B}(A\smash B\pmap (B\pmap C)\smash B)\lpmap{A\smash B \pmap\epsilon}(A\smash B\pmap C)).$$ $$(A\pmap B\pmap C)\lpmap{({-})\smash B}(A\smash B\pmap (B\pmap C)\smash B)\lpmap{A\smash B \pmap\epsilon}(A\smash B\pmap C)).$$
\end{defn}
\begin{lem} \begin{lem}
$e$ has an inverse $\inv e\jdeq \inv{e}_{A,B,C}:(A\smash B\pmap C)\pmap(A\pmap B\pmap C)$ which is defined as $e$ is invertible, hence gives a pointed equivalence $$(A\pmap B\pmap C)\simeq(A\smash B\pmap C).$$
$$(A\smash B\pmap C)\lpmap{B\pmap({-})}((B\pmap A\smash B)\pmap (B\pmap C))\lpmap{\eta\pmap(B\pmap C)}(A\pmap B\pmap C).$$
\begin{proof}
We do not actually use that $\inv{e}_{A,B,C}$ has this form in later proofs, we only use that $e$ is invertible (the former fact is also not formalized). Proof to do.
\end{proof}
\end{lem} \end{lem}
\end{defn} \begin{proof}
\begin{lem} Define
$$\inv{e}_{A,B,C}:(A\smash B\pmap C)\lpmap{B\pmap({-})}((B\pmap A\smash B)\pmap (B\pmap
C))\lpmap{\eta\pmap(B\pmap C)}(A\pmap B\pmap C).$$ It is easy to show that $e$ and $\inv{e}$ are
inverses as unpointed maps from the unit-counit laws and naturality of $\eta$ and $\epsilon$.
\end{proof}
\begin{lem}\label{e-natural}
$e$ is natural in $A$, $B$ and $C$. $e$ is natural in $A$, $B$ and $C$.
\end{lem} \end{lem}
\begin{rmk}
\item Instead of showing that $e$ is natural, we could instead show that $e^{-1}$ is natural. In
that case we need to show that the map $A\to({-}):(B\to C)\to(A\to B)\to(A\to C)$ is natural in
$A$, $B$ and $C$. This might actually be easier, since we don't need to work with any higher
inductive type to prove that.
\end{rmk}
\begin{proof} \begin{proof}
\textbf{$e$ is natural in $A$}. Suppose that $f:A'\pmap A$. Then the following diagram commutes. The left square commutes by naturality of $({-})\smash B$ in the first argument and the right square commutes because composition on the left commutes with composition on the right. \textbf{$e$ is natural in $A$}. Suppose that $f:A'\pmap A$. Then the following diagram commutes. The left square commutes by naturality of $({-})\smash B$ in the first argument and the right square commutes because composition on the left commutes with composition on the right.
\begin{center} \begin{center}
@ -281,6 +404,25 @@ $e$ is natural in $A$, $B$ and $C$.
\end{proof} \end{proof}
\begin{thm}
The smash product is associative: there is an equivalence $f : A \smash (B \smash C) \simeq (A \smash B) \smash C$ which is natural in $A$, $B$ and $C$.
\end{thm}
\begin{proof}
Let $\phi_X$ be the composite of the following equivalences:
\begin{align*}
A \smash (B \smash C)\to X&\simeq A \to B\smash C\to X\\
&\simeq A \to B\to C\to X\\
&\simeq A \smash B\to C\to X\\
&\simeq (A \smash B)\smash C\to X.
\end{align*}
$\phi_X$ is natural in $A,B,C,X$ by repeatedly applying \autoref{e-natural}. Let
$f\defeq\phi_{A \smash (B \smash C)}(\idfunc)$ and
$f\sy\defeq\phi\sy_{(A \smash B) \smash C}(\idfunc)$. Now these maps are inverses by naturality of
$\phi$ in $X$:
$$f\sy\o f\equiv f\sy\o \phi(\idfunc)\sim \phi(f\sy\o\idfunc)\sim \phi(\phi\sy(\idfunc))\sim\idfunc.$$
The other composition is the identity by a similar argument. Lastly, $f$ is natural in $A$, $B$
and $C$, since $\phi_X$ is.
\end{proof}
\section{Notes on the formalization} \section{Notes on the formalization}