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Theorem 2.13.1 #13

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opened 2024-04-25 13:28:05 +00:00 by michael · 2 comments
michael commented 2024-04-25 13:28:05 +00:00
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For all m, n : N we have (m = n) ≃ \texttt{code}(m, n).

For all $m, n : N$ we have $(m = n) ≃ \texttt{code}(m, n)$.
michael commented 2024-04-25 13:29:11 +00:00
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This proof in the book:

image

not sure how the third line transitions to the fourth line

This proof in the book: ![image](/attachments/fdbb5132-3248-4773-9378-34793ca0471c) not sure how the third line transitions to the fourth line
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michael added this to the (deleted) project 2024-04-25 13:44:15 +00:00
michael modified the project from (deleted) to research 2024-05-24 01:34:36 +00:00
michael commented 2024-05-30 20:49:04 +00:00
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solved by lemma 2.3.10

solved by lemma 2.3.10
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